Quote 3124
Grammatically, there are other places where the genitive refers to Christ as the object.
In Philippians 3:8, Jesus Christ is described as the object of knowledge. In 1 Thessalonians, he is described as the object of hope. In both these cases, it is clear from the context that Paul is not talking about Christ's knowledge or Christ's hope. There is no grammatical reason why the same can't be true of pistis christou.
Trevin Wax
https://www.thegospelcoalition.org/blogs/trevin-wax/faith-in-christ-or-faithfulness-of-christ/1.2K
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Why is this debate over faith in Jesus Christ important?... because it reveals the emphasis in Paul's thinking. In other words, if these texts say that one must believe in Jesus Christ for righteousness, such a theme is incredibly pervasive and forceful in Paul's letters. He reminds his readers again and again that they must put their faith in Jesus Christ to stand in the right before God, to be saved on the last day.131-132, Faith Alone by Thomas Schreiner Copyright ©2015 by Schreiner. Used by permission of HarperCollins Christian Publishing. www.harpercollinschristian.com
As compelling as this view is, I suggest that it over-states the Pauline and Protestant understanding of grace. Yes, Paul says we cannot be justified by our own works, and he contrasts justification by works with justification by faith in Christ (e.g., Gal. 2:16; Rom. 4:4–5). But he does, in fact, say in many places we are justified by our faith, and he never contrasts our faith with the work of Christ. Instead, Paul can say in the same breath that we are both "justified by [our] faith" (Rom. 5:1) and "justified by his blood" (Rom. 5:9).https://www.crossway.org/articles/faith-in-christ-vs-the-faithfulness-of-christ/
None of the early church fathers or early Greek readers give a subjective genitive reading of pistis christou. In fact, the discussion doesn't even come up.https://www.thegospelcoalition.org/blogs/trevin-wax/faith-in-christ-or-faithfulness-of-christ/
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